By myself I can do nothing; I judge only as I hear, and my judgment is just, for I seek not to please myself but him who sent me.
John 5:30
John 4:34 Jesus said to them, "My food is to do the will of Him who sent Me and to accomplish His work.
John 5:19 Therefore Jesus answered and was saying to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless it is something He sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner.
John 6:38 "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.
John 8:16 "But even if I do judge, My judgment is true; for I am not alone in it, but I and the Father who sent Me.
John 5:30 "I can do nothing on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.
John 6:38 "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.
by AuservJohn 4:34: Jesus was saying this in response to his disciples asking him to eat. He said he had food that they didn't know about, and when they asked him who gave him this food, this is his reply. He's not speaking literally about food, but saying that what he needs to live is to do the will of God ("Him who sent Me").
John 5:19: In this verse, Jesus is defending himself in the face of Jews saying that he's blaspheming by calling himself the son of God and thus making himself equal to God. He basically says back, "I might be the Son of God, but everything I do is just imitating God". He's using the image of a kid learning from his dad. Obviously a kid is not equal to his dad, and that's the impression he's trying to give.
John 6:38: Similarly to the first two, Jesus is just saying he was sent to do God's will and is not acting of his own accord.
John 8:16: He's talking to people who are saying "how do we know you're right if we only have your own claims to go by?", and what he's saying is to the effect of "I know I'm right, because I'm not the only one making these claims - my father is with me and he's saying it too".
John 5:30: He has just healed a guy who's had some sickness for 38 years and can't even walk by himself. He's lying on a cot, and Jesus heals him and tells him to get up and carry the cot. It's the Sabbath, though, so people are saying "It's unlawful for you to be doing work on the Sabbath, why did you tell the guy to carry his cot", and Jesus is saying "I didn't heal him of my own power, I did it through God," with the implication being that God would've wanted the guy to pick up the cot too.
John 6:38: You already listed this one.
Altogether, these verses seem to be building up to the theme that Jesus and God are separate entities, (i.e., the Trinity doctrine is unscriptural), which seems like a logical interpretation of these verses. Ultimately, though, to me the whole matter seems unimportant. It's like, you can say God and Jesus are the same person, or you can say they're different people, but does it really change the point of Jesus' teachings? I don't concern myself with matters like that.
The Holy Bible: Trinity Edition
Spaghetti Western Bible, Vol. 4: Trinity
Christ in Islam
What Was the Sign of Jonah?
